October Morning 2026

Overall subject-wise MCQ distribution

Complete breakdown

Most frequently tested topics

Paper A

Paper B

Takeaways from this paper

A few things stand out:

• Dental Materials was the largest individual subject, accounting for 23 MCQs. It deserves substantial preparation time.
• Neurology had 18 MCQs, making it a surprisingly prominent basic medical subject.
• OMFS and Oral Medicine both had 12 questions, suggesting good coverage of clinical dentistry.
• Community Dentistry had 10 questions, spread across epidemiology, behavioural sciences and public health.
• Endocrinology and Biochemistry also had 10 questions each.

These priorities reflect this particular recalled paper, not a guaranteed distribution in future FCPS examinations.

Paper

FCPS Dentistry – 7 October 2026

Morning Paper Recalls – Subject-wise Question Bank

Total: 185 numbered questions

Available: 184 questions (Q17 is missing from the supplied paper).

PART 1 – QUESTIONS

DENTAL MATERIALS

Q1. Which type of Glass Ionomer Cement (GIC) is used in Atraumatic Restorative Treatment (ART)?

A. Type I

B. Type II

C. Type III

D. Type IV

E. Type V

Q2. Which impression material would you use to take an impression of a dentate patient with many undercuts?

A. High-fusing compound

B. Low-fusing compound

C. Wax

D. Zinc oxide eugenol

E. Rubber polyether

Q3. During kneading of impression compound, a substance was leached out, making the material rigid. Which substance was leached?

A. Stearic acid

B. Dibutyl phthalate

Q4. Which type of composite resin is strongest?

A. Microfilled

B. Macrofilled

C. Hybrid

Q5. Which component of GIC allows it to make a chemical bond with the tooth surface?

A. Polyacrylic acid

B. Tartaric acid

C. Itaconic acid

D. Aluminium glass

Q6. A manufacturer found that there was an impurity of gypsum (CaSO₄·2H₂O) in gypsum products. What effect does this impurity have on setting time?

A. Increase the setting reaction

B. Decrease the setting time

C. Increase setting expansion

D. Decrease setting expansion

E. No change

Q7. Resin is a resin sealer. Resin sealers provide what advantage?

A. Dimensional stability

B. Radiopacity

C. Monoblock

D. Bacteriostatic

Q8. A dentist is preparing a tooth for a fixed partial denture (FPD). The tooth got chipped off. It was restored with GIC. The dentist then took an impression with addition silicone. While removing the impression, he noticed that only the area of impression in contact with the tooth had not polymerised. What is the likely reason?

Q9. Which type of cement forms a true chemical bond with tooth structure?

A. Composite resin

B. Zinc polycarboxylate

C. Zinc oxide eugenol

Q10. Carnauba wax is added to paraffin wax to:

A. Increase the melting point

Q11. A restoration was placed in a tooth. On examination, surface cracks were observed in the restorative material. Which material property is most closely related to the material's resistance to crack propagation?

A. Brittleness

B. Fracture toughness

C. Ductility

D. Malleability

Q12. Which material property is most important for the longevity of a dental restoration?

A. Aesthetics

B. Fracture toughness

C. Colour stability

D. Translucency

Q13. Which of the following is a retarder of the setting reaction in gypsum products?

Q14. To minimise shrinkage and porosity in dental porcelain during firing, the technician should:

Q15. What is the main disadvantage of wax as a temporary denture base?

Q16. An impression material is needed for a PFM bridge. You have to select an impression material that has no bad smell (neutral odour).

A. Alginate

B. Addition silicone

Q18. What is the advantage of ZOE temporary filling material?

Q19. A female patient presented with a restoration with amalgam done a few months back. She now presents with fracture of the restoration. Which component of amalgam leads to fracture of the restoration?

A. Low copper amalgam

B. High copper amalgam

C. Zinc causing expansion

D. Mercury acting as a binder

Q20. A dental technician wants to make a wax pattern of a tooth. To avoid leaching of substances, incorporation of impurities and unnecessary flow, how should the technician warm the wax?

A. Directly over a flame

B. In a water bath

C. In a wax annealer

D. By another heating method

Q21. Increased powder-to-liquid ratio, followed by rapid mixing of GIC, would result in:

A. Bubbles

B. Non-uniform appearance

C. Loss of adhesion to tooth

Q22. A restoration was made for a patient. During trial, it was seating on the die. After cementing it with zinc phosphate cement, the die was not seating. What is the likely reason?

Q23. The glass phase in castable ceramics is primarily associated with what?

Q24. Which of the following is a component of castable ceramics? (Question/options incomplete in original recall.)

OPERATIVE DENTISTRY

Q25. Polymerisation shrinkage in composite resin is associated with which component?

A. Organic resin matrix

B. Inorganic fillers

Q26. How many seconds should dentin be etched?

A. 5 seconds

B. 10 seconds

C. 15 seconds

D. 30 seconds

Q27. Which restoration has the highest compressive strength?

A. Nanofilled composite

B. Conventional composite

C. Compomer

Q28. Which of the following dental restorative materials has the highest mechanical strength?

A. Glass ionomer cement (GIC)

B. Zinc phosphate cement

C. Polycarboxylate cement

D. Resin composite

Q29. A patient presented with a restoration in the upper 6 a few months back. You see that there is a gap between the restoration and tooth. The restoration has locally peeled back in the cavity. Which material had been used for the restoration?

A. Unfilled acrylic resin

B. Filled acrylic resin

C. Composite resin

D. Amalgam

E. GIC

Q30. A patient with high caries risk needs a restoration in a posterior molar. Which material will you choose that can manage the stresses?

A. Composite resin

B. Compomer

C. RMGIC

Q31. A 4-year-old child with an active carious lesion is planned for Silver Diamine Fluoride (SDF) application. What is the most appropriate method of application?

A. Apply a thick layer of SDF and ask the patient to rinse

B. Apply a thin layer of SDF with a cotton swab and wash immediately

C. Apply a thin layer of SDF with a microbrush and instruct the patient not to brush for at least 24 hours

D. Apply SDF to the whole mouth as a mouthwash

E. Spray SDF directly onto the teeth

PROSTHODONTICS

Q32. A patient presented with an edentulous upper jaw. Only the remaining third molars in the lower jaw are present. Which material will you use to make a denture for the patient?

A. Heat-cure acrylic

B. Self-cure acrylic

PAEDODONTICS

Q33. A 4-year-old boy has a missing tooth and requires a temporary replacement before definitive restoration. Which material is most appropriate for the temporary tooth?

A. Implant-supported crown

B. Minimal-preparation bridge

C. Self-cure acrylic resin tooth

D. Heat-cure acrylic tooth

Q34. While preparing a cavity in a deciduous tooth, the pulp got exposed. Which material can be used for direct pulp capping and is also compatible with the pulp?

Q35. The dentist has the child sitting in the dental chair. Before giving local anaesthesia, the child has tears in their eyes and is not opening their mouth. What will you do?

A. Use Tell-Show-Do technique

B. Use sedation

C. Use restraint technique

ORTHODONTICS

Q36. Distraction osteogenesis is based on which concept?

A. Lillazov's law of tension-stress

B. Functional matrix theory

Q37. Relapse after orthodontic treatment is due to:

Q38. An area at which growth occurs independently of the external environment is called:

Q39. When orthodontic force is applied to a tooth, what happens?

Q40. Interceptive orthodontic treatment is NOT indicated in which situation?

A. Anterior crossbite or thumb-sucking habit

B. Mesial shift of molars with early loss of first primary molar

C. Distal shift of molars with early loss of first primary molar

D. Class II malocclusion with normal alignment or minimal crowding/spacing

Q41. During heavy forces in orthodontic tooth movement, which cells are responsible for both collagen deposition and collagen resorption in the periodontal ligament?

A. Cementoblasts

B. Osteoblasts

C. Osteoclasts

D. Fibroblasts

Q42. The dentoalveolar changes observed in a child due to prolonged thumb-sucking can be explained by which theory?

ORAL AND MAXILLOFACIAL SURGERY

Q43. A patient requires surgical extraction of an impacted tooth. They have been taking aspirin 75 mg for quite a while. Their PT is 21 seconds (control is 15 seconds). How will you manage this case?

A. Stop aspirin for 10 days and then do extraction

B. Stop aspirin for 7 days and then do extraction

C. Proceed with extraction and use local measures to stop bleeding

Q44. A patient has dislocation of the TMJ joint. Which structure prevents dislocation of the TMJ?

A. Lateral pterygoid muscle

B. Fibres of the capsule

Q45. Boxer got hit by a punch. His jaw deviated on one side. Most likely problem is:

A. Disc displacement with reduction

B. Disc displacement without reduction

C. Unilateral condyle fracture

D. TMJ disorder

Q46. A patient complains of pain in the TMJ. No clicking sounds and no radiographic findings. What is the diagnosis?

Q47. A dentist started to give an inferior alveolar nerve block. After some time, the patient was unable to close their eye. What complication has occurred?

Q48. A patient has a history of allergic reactions to local anaesthetic. On history, it was found that all those local anaesthetics had methylparaben in their components. Which component of local anaesthetic is most likely to cause allergic reactions?

A. Methyl paraben

B. Epinephrine

Q49. Local anaesthetic allergy is most commonly due to which constituent?

A. Lidocaine

B. Methyl paraben

C. Sodium chloride

Q50. A patient has been taking Alendronate for osteoporosis. A lesion with exposed bone developed in the oral cavity. What is the likely diagnosis?

Q51. A patient presents with periorbital ecchymosis and mobility of the maxilla on palpation. Radiographically, there is a straight fracture line across the maxilla, separating it from the palate shelves and nasal septum, with the fracture line extending into the pterygoid plates. Which fracture is this?

A. Le Fort I

B. Le Fort III

C. Le Fort II

D. Zygomaticomaxillary complex fracture

Q52. After giving local anaesthesia in the oral cavity, a patient develops light-headedness, flushing and headache. What is the likely reason?

A. Local anaesthetic toxicity

B. Vasovagal syncope

Q53. Infection of the lateral incisor can spread to which space?

Q54. What is the clinical scenario associated with osteoradionecrosis?

ORAL MEDICINE

Q55. A patient has a history of betel nut chewing, burning sensation in the mouth and difficulty opening the mouth. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Q56. A patient presents with supernumerary teeth in the incisor region and also in the molar region. What is the syndrome?

Q57. Bilateral mandibular retrognathia and hearing loss are associated with which syndrome?

Q58. A patient has multiple missing teeth in the anterior region (anodontia), scanty dry hair and absence of sweating. What is the diagnosis?

Q59. A patient has upward-slanting palpebral fissures, a depressed nasal bridge and a prominent simian crease. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Q60. A patient presents with gums peeling off on brushing (desquamative gingivitis) and ulcerated buccal mucosa. Nikolsky sign is positive. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Mucous membrane pemphigoid

B. Pemphigus vulgaris

C. Erythema multiforme

D. Aphthous ulcer

Q61. A child has barrel-shaped teeth and notched incisal edges. What is the disorder?

Q62. A patient presents with localised hyperpigmentation of the gingiva, with no history of medication or systemic illness. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Smoker melanosis

B. Oral melanoma

C. Physiologic pigmentation

D. Drug-induced pigmentation

E. Amalgam tattoo

Q63. Ulcers due to infection in the oral cavity are characterised by:

A. White plaque with pseudomembranes

B. Erythematous base with white areas

C. Painful ulcers with yellow base

Q64. What is the diagnosis in a clinical scenario of ankyloglossia?

Q65. What is the diagnosis in a clinical scenario of Candida albicans infection?

Q66. What is the diagnosis in a clinical scenario of erosive lichen planus?

ORAL PATHOLOGY

Q67. A 9-year-old child presents with a painless swelling in the posterior mandible. Radiograph shows a multilocular radiolucency with a soap-bubble appearance. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Ameloblastoma

B. Paget's disease

C. Odontogenic myxoma

D. Cherubism

Q68. A lesion is present at the angle of the mandible, showing islands of epithelium with cystic spaces. What is the likely diagnosis?

Q69. A patient presents with a tumour in the superficial lobe of the parotid gland. What investigation will you do to diagnose the lesion?

Q70. A patient presents with a unilocular radiolucency in the posterior border of the mandible. Radiographic examination reveals multiple small tooth-like structures within the lesion. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Compound odontoma

B. Complex odontoma

C. Ameloblastoma

D. Odontogenic keratocyst

Q71. A middle-aged patient presents with a brownish plaque on the cheek. Histopathology reveals epithelial nests filled with keratin. The lesion is well-circumscribed and developed rapidly over a few weeks. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Seborrheic dermatitis

B. Keratoacanthoma

C. Squamous cell carcinoma

D. Actinic keratosis

E. Basal cell carcinoma

Q72. A dental student is unable to extract a tooth despite correct technique. Radiograph shows a bulbous root. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Ankylosis of the tooth

B. Loss of cementum

C. External root resorption

Q73. Fordyce spots are:

COMMUNITY DENTISTRY

Q74. In the Community Periodontal Index of Treatment Needs (CPITN), when is a sextant assigned a score of X?

A. When no teeth are present in the sextant

B. When fewer than two teeth are present in the sextant

C. When all teeth have periodontal pockets

D. When there is no gingival bleeding

Q75. A longitudinal study is conducted in which groups of pregnant women with different maternal diseases are followed to determine whether their babies develop congenital abnormalities. What type of study design is this?

A. Case-control study

B. Cohort study

C. Cross-sectional study

D. Randomised controlled trial

Q76. A bright student who performs well in studies but avoids giving presentations in class and avoids attending family gatherings most likely suffers from:

A. Panic disorder

B. Social Anxiety Disorder

C. Generalised anxiety disorder

D. ADHD

Q77. A patient describes his feelings and concerns about his illness to the doctor. Which of the following is the most appropriate response by the doctor?

A. Sympathy

B. Empathy

Q78. What is the main consequence of a false-negative test result?

A. Wastage of time

B. Wastage of resources

C. False reassurance to the patient

Q79. Public health programme planning has 11 steps. Which third step is situational analysis? It is related to:

Q80. When was the modified DMFT index introduced by WHO?

A. 1981

B. 1982

C. 1984

D. 1986

E. 1987

Q81. What is the impact of mass media?

A. Very effective in bringing about change in behaviour

B. Moderately effective in bringing about change in behaviour

C. Not effective in bringing about change in behaviour

Q82. A public health analyst wants to study the global prevalence of influenza. What type of study design will be used?

A. Ecological study

B. Cross-sectional study

Q83. As a public health specialist, you are invited to a school where children do not brush regularly. Which model of behaviour change would you utilise to encourage children to start regular toothbrushing?

A. Social Cognitive Theory

B. Health Belief Model

C. Theory of Planned Behaviour

D. Transtheoretical Model

STERILISATION AND DISINFECTION

Q84. What is the concentration of glutaraldehyde used for disinfection?

Q85. The most potent disinfectant chemical used for cold sterilisation of instruments is:

A. 3.5% hydrogen peroxide

B. Povidone iodine

C. Sodium hypochlorite

D. 2% glutaraldehyde

Q86. A rubber dam sheet is to be disinfected by immersion for 10 hours. Which solution is most appropriate?

A. 2% glutaraldehyde

B. 70% ethanol

C. Sodium hypochlorite (1%)

D. 0.2% chlorhexidine

Q87. Which of the following is the best disinfectant for clinical surfaces after treating a patient with Mycobacterium tuberculosis?

A. Sodium hypochlorite

B. Ethyl alcohol

Q88. In an autoclave, after autoclaving at 121°C for 15 minutes, the autoclave strip still shows spores. What could have been the problem?

A. Inadequate water in the reservoir

B. Using high pressure

C. Using ethylene oxide (EO) as a gas

ORAL BIOLOGY

Q89. A child presents with sparse hair, multiple missing teeth, defective nails and reduced sweating, suggestive of ectodermal dysplasia. The most likely stage of tooth development affected is:

A. Bell stage

B. Early bell stage

C. Late bell stage

D. Initiation and proliferation stage

Q90. A newborn presents with a unilateral cleft lip extending into the floor of the hard palate. This defect results from failure of fusion between which embryological processes?

A. Palatal shelves

B. Medial nasal process and maxillary process

C. Lateral nasal process and maxillary process

D. Two maxillary processes

Q91. In a patient with cleft philtrum, the philtrum of the upper lip is derived from fusion of:

A. Medial nasal prominences

B. Median nasal and frontal processes

C. Medial and lateral nasal processes

Q92. Cleft lip results from failure of fusion of facial processes during embryonic development. During which period of gestation does this developmental defect occur?

A. First trimester

B. Early second trimester

C. Late second trimester

D. Early third trimester

ORAL MORPHOLOGY

Q93. At what age does root formation of third molars usually complete?

A. 18–25 years

B. 17–21 years

Q94. A father brings his 10-year-old child who presents with an extra cusp on the palatal surface of an upper molar. This cusp is called:

A. Cusp of Carabelli

B. Talon's cusp

C. Leong's tubercle

D. Dens evaginatus

Q95. While preparing for an MOD cavity restoration, you notice an oblique ridge on the first maxillary molar connecting two cusps. Which two cusps are connected?

A. Mesiobuccal to distobuccal

B. Mesiolingual to distolingual

C. Mesiobuccal to distolingual

D. Mesiolingual to distobuccal

Q96. In an OPG, the upper and lower second molars are partially erupted. Maxillary and mandibular canines were erupted. What is the age of the patient?

A. 11 years

B. 12 years

C. 13 years

D. 14 years

ORAL HISTOLOGY

Q97. On histological examination of filiform papillae, what will you see?

A. Thread-like extensions

B. Umbrella-like extensions

C. Mushroom-shaped extensions

D. Leaf-shaped

Q98. On the dorsum of the tongue, a structure shows finger-like/foot-like processes lined by stratified squamous epithelium, without taste buds. What is this structure?

A. Circumvallate papilla

B. Lingual tonsil

C. Filiform papilla

D. Fungiform papilla

RADIOLOGY

Q99. A patient presents with multiple caries in the posterior region. Which radiograph would you choose for caries detection and restoration follow-up?

A. Bitewing

B. Periapical

C. OPG

Q100. What imaging modality is used for cleft lip and palate assessment?

PERIODONTOLOGY

Q101. A patient presents with the complaint that they were eating food and a solid food particle got stuck in the gingival sulcus. After some time the area got swollen. They also have periodontal disease. What might be the reason for swelling?

CELL PHYSIOLOGY

Q102. Facilitated diffusion requires:

Q103. CO₂ exchange between alveoli and blood occurs by:

Q104. What is the effect of hyperkalaemia on a neuron?

CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM

Q105. A patient with valvular degeneration of the heart requires which appropriate investigation?

Q106. A patient has ST-segment elevation on ECG and crushing chest pain. Which cardiac enzyme increases first in this situation?

A. Troponin

B. CK-MB

C. LDH

Q107. During exercise, myocardial blood flow is primarily regulated by:

GASTROENTEROLOGY

Q108. A patient presents with difficulty in swallowing (dysphagia). Which mechanism is responsible for moving food through the oesophagus towards the stomach?

A. Peristalsis of muscularis mucosae

B. Peristalsis of muscularis externa

C. Contraction of muscularis externa

D. Oesophagogastric sphincter

Q109. A patient has HBsAg negative, anti-HBc positive and anti-HBs positive results. What does this indicate?

PULMONOLOGY

Q110. A patient was stabbed just above the clavicle and developed respiratory difficulty. Which structure of the lung is involved in such an injury?

A. Apical lobe of lung

B. Middle lobe of lung

C. Inferior lobe of lung

D. Mediastinal pleura

E. Axillary pectoral fascia

Q111. What type of necrosis is seen in Mycobacterium tuberculosis infection?

Q112. A patient presents with fever, night sweats, weight loss, hepatosplenomegaly and generalised lymphadenopathy. What is the likely diagnosis?

NEPHROLOGY

Q113. A hiker climbed a mountain and developed shortness of breath. What acid-base imbalance will be present?

Q114. A patient has severe vomiting. What acid-base imbalance would this lead to?

Q115. Which of these is a feature of Conn's syndrome (primary hyperaldosteronism)?

Q116. A person breathing into a paper bag causes hyperventilation according to the recall. What will cause the hyperventilation?

A. Increased arterial CO₂

B. Increased PCO₂ in alveoli

C. Decreased PCO₂ in alveoli

D. Decreased PCO₂ in blood

Q117. A patient with increased peritubular capillary hydrostatic pressure produces a large urine output. What factor is responsible for the large urine output?

A. Increased secretion of Na and water in peritubular capillaries

B. Increased absorption of Na and water in peritubular capillaries

C. Re-entry/leak of Na and water into the renal tubular lumen

HEMATOLOGY

Q118. Vitamin B12 needs which factor to get absorbed?

Q119. Deficiency of which vitamin leads to a high level of homocysteine in urine?

Q120. A patient has a platelet count of 275 × 10³/mm³ and bleeding time of 5 minutes. What does this indicate?

Q121. In a scenario of iron-deficiency anaemia, what is the pattern of anaemia?

Q122. An 8-year-old child presents with profuse bleeding after extraction of a deciduous tooth. After investigation, he is diagnosed with haemophilia. The blood analysis shows deficiency of:

A. Factor IX

B. Factor VIII (large component)

C. Factor VIII (small component)

D. Factor XII

ENDOCRINOLOGY

Q123. A 30-year-old female patient has symptoms of hypothyroidism such as weight gain and depression. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Q124. A patient has Graves' disease with features of hyperthyroidism. What other characteristic is also present in this disease?

Q125. A patient with symptoms of hypothyroidism has low TSH concentration and a markedly increased TSH response when given TRH. Which type of hypothyroidism is most likely?

Q126. A patient presents with swelling in the neck that moves up and down with swallowing. There is weight loss and other symptoms of hyperthyroidism. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Q127. A patient presents with a midline neck swelling that moves upwards with deglutition (swallowing) and tongue protrusion. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Q128. A child presents with a painless midline neck swelling that moves upwards on swallowing and tongue protrusion. The swelling is related to a remnant of the thyroglossal duct. From which anatomical structure does this duct originate?

A. Foramen cecum

B. Base of tongue

C. Tuberculum impar

D. Sulcus terminalis

Q129. What is the main regulator of 25-hydroxycholecalciferol?

A. PTH

B. Serum calcium

C. 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol

Q130. Which statement regarding vitamin D metabolism is correct?

A. 25-hydroxylase is in the kidney and alpha-hydroxylase in the liver

B. 25-hydroxylase is in the skin and alpha-hydroxylase in the liver

C. 25-hydroxylase is in the liver and alpha-hydroxylase in the kidney

D. 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol is formed in the liver

Q131. A girl comes to the dentist. On examination, she has no periodontal disease. On X-ray, there is a cotton-wool appearance. Otherwise she is healthy. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Late Paget's disease

B. Early-stage Paget's disease

C. Late-phase Paget's disease

D. Diffuse radiolucency of mandible

Q132. A female patient aged 59 years presents with osteoporosis and multiple fractures of bone. She has not taken any medication. What is responsible for this?

Q133. What is the stimulus for glucagon secretion?

NEUROLOGY

Q134. A patient has difficulty turning the head to the side and elevating the shoulder. Which nerve is involved?

Q135. A patient with tenderness on the ramus of the mandible and zygomatic arch has pain. Which nerve might be involved?

Q136. A patient has an absent corneal reflex. Which nerve is involved?

Q137. A patient with Parkinson's disease presents with stooped posture, shuffling gait and a lesion in substantia nigra. Which neurotransmitter is affected?

A. Dopamine

B. Serotonin

Q138. During superficial lobe surgery of the parotid gland for a tumour, which nerve is most likely to be injured?

Q139. A patient has drooping of the lower margin of the eye and is unable to close the eye. What is the site of the brain lesion?

A. Pons

B. Cerebellum

C. Medulla

D. Cerebrum

Q140. A 24-year-old male has a post-RTA injury, was briefly unconscious at the scene, then had a lucid interval, followed by rapidly worsening drowsiness, a dilated/sluggish pupil on one side and deterioration into unconsciousness. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Epidural haematoma

B. Subdural haemorrhage

C. Subarachnoid haemorrhage

Q141. A patient with bronchogenic carcinoma presents with wasting and wrinkling of one side of the tongue, with deviation of the tongue towards the affected side on protrusion. Which nerve is most likely involved?

A. Facial nerve (CN VII)

B. Vagus nerve (CN X)

C. Hypoglossal nerve (CN XII)

D. Glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX)

Q142. A patient presents with weakness/paralysis of the right half of the body along with speech problems. Which part of the brain is most likely affected?

A. Right parietal lobe

B. Left parietal lobe

C. Right frontal lobe

D. Left frontal lobe

Q143. A 55-year-old man presents with drooping of the right eyelid (ptosis), unequal pupil size (anisocoria), a dilated right pupil (mydriasis) and horizontal diplopia on attempted gaze. Which is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Trochlear nerve palsy

B. Oculomotor nerve palsy

C. Horner syndrome

D. Abducens nerve palsy

Q144. After a mastoid surgery, the patient experiences hyperacusis (excessive sensitivity to sound), but taste sensation in the anterior two-thirds of the tongue remains intact. Where is the site of injury?

A. Nerve to stapedius

B. Chorda tympani

C. Greater petrosal nerve

D. Facial nerve trunk

Q145. A patient has extreme sensitivity to cold and hot and has sleep and hormonal disturbances. The lesion is present in which structure?

A. Thalamus

B. Hypothalamus

C. Pituitary gland

D. Pineal gland

Q146. After thyroid surgery, a patient develops heaviness of voice. Which muscle is related to this condition?

Q147. Intrinsic muscles of the larynx are supplied by which nerve?

Q148. A patient has the mandible deviated to the right side. This is due to damage to muscles derived from which pharyngeal arch?

Q149. A patient feels pain on the skin. Pain on the skin is carried by which sensory nerve endings?

A. Free nerve endings

B. Pacinian corpuscles

C. Merkel discs

D. Ruffini endings

Q150. Carcinoma of the lower lip drains into which lymph nodes?

GENERAL PATHOLOGY

Q151. Due to a thrombus, an artery supplying the heart became blocked and the patient later died. On biopsy, small round bodies are visible. Which structures are these?

A. Apoptotic bodies

B. Psammoma bodies

C. Myelin figures

D. Councilman bodies

Q152. What type of necrosis occurs in the heart?

Q153. A patient has been taking antibiotics for many months for a heart condition. Which clotting factors would be deficient?

Q154. A long-standing alcoholic patient presents with chronic alcoholism. Deficiency of which vitamin is associated with the condition in the recall?

Q155. What type of adaptive response occurs in the thyroid?

Q156. A child presents with a zygomatic bone defect along with a congenital heart defect (outflow tract anomaly). Abnormal migration of which of the following is most likely responsible for both defects?

A. Notochord

B. Neural crest cells

C. Endoderm

D. Neural tube

Q157. In a patient with burns, bullae/blisters develop due to fluid accumulation. What type of exudate is present in the bullae?

Q158. A patient presents with excessive collagen deposition extending beyond the margins of a wound. The patient has a history of multiple ear piercings. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Q159. What is the diagnosis in a clinical scenario of Ehlers-Danlos syndrome?

IMMUNOLOGY

Q160. A child develops post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis with cola-coloured urine. What type of immune mechanism is involved?

Q161. A patient has type 1 diabetes mellitus with raised glucose. What type of immune mechanism is involved?

Q162. After antibiotic administration, a patient develops urticaria and rashes. This is due to which immunoglobulin?

MICROBIOLOGY

Q163. PAS staining is used for:

A. Bacteria

B. Viruses

C. Fungi

D. Spirochetes

Q164. A person eats canned fish and develops difficulty in swallowing and difficulty breathing. Which toxin is involved?

Q165. Botulinum toxin is injected into the skin to remove wrinkles, causing atrophy of muscles and inhibiting acetylcholine. At which site does botulinum toxin act?

A. Presynaptic terminal

B. Postsynaptic terminal

C. Neuromuscular junction

D. Acetylcholinesterase

Q166. A child is born with cataracts and deafness. What exposure might have occurred to the mother during pregnancy?

HISTOLOGY

Q167. A patient does not take vegetables and foods in their diet. Which stage of collagen synthesis would be affected?

Q168. What is the histological composition of the submandibular gland?

BIOCHEMISTRY

Q169. A pregnant female takes vitamin A for acne treatment. What systemic complication can occur in the baby?

A. Genitourinary

B. Gastrointestinal

C. Central nervous system

Q170. Which antibody is present in secretions?

Q171. Vitamin A is transported from the intestines to the liver by:

A. Free retinol

B. Chylomicrons

C. VLDL

D. Albumin

Q172. What is the most potent antioxidant?

Q173. What is the protein percentage in balanced diet?

A. 30–35%

B. 25–30%

C. 20–25%

D. 15–20%

E. 10–15%

Q174. What is the main dietary source of vitamin K?

A. Turban (as written in recall)

B. Green vegetables

C. Fruits

D. Milk

Q175. The bitter taste of certain foods is primarily due to which type of chemical compound?

A. Aldehydes

B. Alkaloids

C. Ketones

D. Esters

Q176. A patient takes spinach daily for low calcium. However, their calcium levels have decreased more. Which component of spinach leads to decreased bioavailability of other minerals?

Q177. What causes hypervitaminosis A?

Q178. A patient with a cardiac condition presents with metabolic acidosis and elevated blood lactate. The patient has adequate arterial oxygen saturation and no history of medication use associated with lactic acidosis. Which mechanism best explains lactate accumulation?

PHARMACOLOGY

Q179. An elderly obese patient was started on IV gentamicin twice daily post-laparotomy. Which of the following will be disturbed?

Q180. A patient with joint pain and peptic ulcer requires medication for pulpitis. Which drug would you give?

Q181. A patient was bitten by a dog. Gram staining shows Gram-negative coccobacilli. The organism is Capnocytophaga canimorsus. Which antibiotic is the best choice?

Q182. A patient with chest pain during dental treatment is given sublingual nitroglycerin. It acts quickly to relieve the pain. This quick action is due to:

A. Thin epithelium

B. No keratinocytes

C. Thick submucosa

D. Vascular area

Q183. Which antibiotic can cause bleeding gums?

EMBRYOLOGY

Q184. Malleus and incus are derived from which pharyngeal arch?

ETHICS

Q185. A patient is diagnosed with HIV/AIDS. He does not want to tell his wife about the diagnosis. What principle is involved?

A. Confidentiality can be broken in the best interest of the patient

B. Do not tell the wife about the diagnosis

C. Public interest is involved

PART 2 – ANSWER KEY WITH EXPLANATIONS

DENTAL MATERIALS

OPERATIVE DENTISTRY

PROSTHODONTICS

PAEDODONTICS

ORTHODONTICS

ORAL AND MAXILLOFACIAL SURGERY

ORAL MEDICINE

ORAL PATHOLOGY

COMMUNITY DENTISTRY

STERILISATION AND DISINFECTION

ORAL BIOLOGY

ORAL MORPHOLOGY

ORAL HISTOLOGY

RADIOLOGY

PERIODONTOLOGY

CELL PHYSIOLOGY

CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM

GASTROENTEROLOGY

PULMONOLOGY

NEPHROLOGY

HEMATOLOGY

ENDOCRINOLOGY

NEUROLOGY

GENERAL PATHOLOGY

IMMUNOLOGY

MICROBIOLOGY

HISTOLOGY

BIOCHEMISTRY

PHARMACOLOGY

EMBRYOLOGY

ETHICS

IMPORTANT QUESTIONS REQUIRING VERIFICATION

The following recalls are incomplete, ambiguous or have potentially unreliable answer markings. Do not memorise their recalled keys blindly:

• Q2 – The ideal flexible material for undercuts is not included in the options.
• Q6 – Gypsum dihydrate impurity accelerates setting; the answer is decrease in setting time.
• Q19 – High-copper amalgam is not generally a cause of restoration fracture.
• Q21 – The options and intended consequence are unclear.
• Q23–24 – Castable ceramic questions lack sufficient detail.
• Q30 – RMGIC is plausible for high caries risk, but stress-bearing indications matter.
• Q60 – Distinguish pemphigus vulgaris from mucous membrane pemphigoid.
• Q67 – The age and radiographic description are not fully consistent.
• Q80 – The historical date needs confirmation against the specific WHO index reference.
• Q83 – The intended behaviour-change theory depends on the intervention described.
• Q89 – Ectodermal dysplasia affects tooth initiation; the recalled developmental stage needs careful interpretation.
• Q116 – The paper's wording appears internally inconsistent.
• Q122 – Factor VIII is correct for haemophilia A; the large/small component wording is unclear.
• Q125 – A TSH response to TRH helps distinguish hypothalamic from pituitary hypothyroidism.
• Q129 – PTH regulates renal activation of vitamin D, not directly hepatic 25-hydroxylation.
• Q131 – Cotton-wool appearance is associated with the sclerotic phase of Paget's disease.
• Q139 – A peripheral facial palsy and a pontine lesion are not interchangeable diagnoses.
• Q151 – The description does not establish apoptotic bodies with certainty.
• Q154–155 – The original stems are incomplete.
• Q183 – The question lacks options and may refer to antibiotic-associated vitamin K deficiency.

End of paper.